Eliza
REGISTERED
I recently posted about the definition of a habitable room, and definition of a bedroom. There is a development proposed for an old building on my street, and most of the units have bedrooms with no no windows and only one form of egress.
We have ordinances that state that for a room to be habitable, it has to have a window “facing directly to the outdoors” which I believe was intended to mean it would open to the outdoors. If it only said “facing the outdoors”, I would think it could be an interior window, but when it says “facing directly to the outdoors”, I take it to mean that the window must open to the outdoors.
Apparently there is R–2 zoning for the proposed development. I was told that our ordinances usually would be enforceable if state code conflicted, bit that in this case,the rights to our town ordinances were waived by the town planning and zoning commission.
Does anyone have any knowledge it thoughts about this and whether it is allowed to waive rights to ordinances, how common it is, and whether it could be challenged?
The building is in rRsidence Zone A, which is only for single-family zoning, but the developer has applied for an adaptive redevelopment zone which allows for more density. The development is supposed to take into account the underlying zone, however.
We are wondering what is the point of having town ordinances if your town adopts state code and then doesn’t enforce ordinances.
Thank you!
We have ordinances that state that for a room to be habitable, it has to have a window “facing directly to the outdoors” which I believe was intended to mean it would open to the outdoors. If it only said “facing the outdoors”, I would think it could be an interior window, but when it says “facing directly to the outdoors”, I take it to mean that the window must open to the outdoors.
Apparently there is R–2 zoning for the proposed development. I was told that our ordinances usually would be enforceable if state code conflicted, bit that in this case,the rights to our town ordinances were waived by the town planning and zoning commission.
Does anyone have any knowledge it thoughts about this and whether it is allowed to waive rights to ordinances, how common it is, and whether it could be challenged?
The building is in rRsidence Zone A, which is only for single-family zoning, but the developer has applied for an adaptive redevelopment zone which allows for more density. The development is supposed to take into account the underlying zone, however.
We are wondering what is the point of having town ordinances if your town adopts state code and then doesn’t enforce ordinances.
Thank you!