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Pair sues for more disabled access

Brudgers said:
Land Grants?The King of Spain came to own the land how?

Ah yes, the force of arms.
The Indians never owned the land, they had no legal title. They came here and occupied it without setting up any system of ownership, they had no more right to ownership than the subsequent European settlers.
 
texasbo said:
I love the way you constantly hold up ADA as the antithesis of slavery, when in fact one is a law that discriminated against an entire race of people and the other gives preferential treatment to a very tiny segment of the population, and is oppressive to the remainder. And in fact both have precipitated the force of arms....as well as revolutionary changes in the laws themselves....

I deplore them both.
Private property rights also required revolutionary changes in the law.
 
conarb said:
The Indians never owned the land, they had no legal title. They came here and occupied it without setting up any system of ownership, they had no more right to ownership than the subsequent European settlers.
The idea that the indigenous peoples of the Americas should have had deeds from the King of Spain is patently absurd.

Their possession predated the existence of a Spanish king.
 
Brudgers said:
The idea that the indigenous peoples of the Americas should have had deeds from the King of Spain is patently absurd.
I didn't say that, but since they didn't have a legal system establishing ownership there was no ownership, they didn't own the land. Most think they came here from Asia 17,000 years ago, the Europeans started coming and staying 500 years ago, if they couldn't establish a system of ownership during that time frame too bad. Nobody owned the land, you can't steal something that nobody owns.
 
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